Did Christ die for Everyone? pt. 1

"And I declare to him that I am about to punish his house forever, for the iniquity that he knew, because his sons were blaspheming God, and he did not restrain them. Therefore I swear to the house of Eli that the iniquity of Eli's house shall not be atoned for by sacrifice or offering forever.” - 1 Samuel 3:13-14

For whom die the Lord taste death? To whom is his atonement applied? Abraham and Abimelek? Jacob and Esau? Peter and Judas? Paul and Nero? Abimelek, Esau, Judas, and Nero were all known enemies of God through wicked works. They never repented, and were not justified by faith. Still, some will hold that Christ died for them. Why then were they not forgiven; especially considering that Christ died to pay for their sins? If you maintain that they failed to believe or place their faith in Jesus, I ask: Since Christ died to pay for all sin, and unbelief is one in the "all sin" category, why are these men again paying for supposedly already forgiven sins in hell? Here, incidentally, is where all the creative and quaint analogies of having to "receive gifts to ensure its applied application" ultimately fall short (since the gift, i.e., Christ' atonement itself ensures its applied application, i.e. faith), and where one must come to terms with the question, "is their double-jeopardy and injustice with God?"

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