Sometimes I fear that thinking unbelievers have a greater grasp of God's God-ness than some Christians. Here's an example of such a thinking man. The above video asks the questions:
"Why does God allow events to take place that will reinforce beliefs in false gods."
Now before I give a response to this question, I must seriously consider the motives of the one who asks this question. Does he really want know so that he might believe, or does his presupposition of the Christian God non-existence, cause him to ask this question as a reason to continue in unbelief? Of course, I cannot say with certainty that this person asks with right or wrong motives, as I am not God (he alone knows the hearts of men). It is for that reason, therefore, that I will attempt to give a Biblical answer without assuming anything more about this person. The following is my response:
Matthew 11:20-27
Then he began to denounce the cities where most of his mighty works had been done, because they did not repent. "Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be exalted to heaven? You will be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day.
But I tell you that it will be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you." At that time Jesus declared, "I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you have hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to little children; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will. All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
What do we learn from the Story:
1. Jesus did some miracles in some cities that did NOT repent
2. Jesus begins to denounce those cities
3. Jesus mentions that certain cites would have repented "if" they had miracles
4. Jesus mentions that somethings are "hidden" from some people and revealed to others
5. Jesus mentions it is the sovereign and gracious will of God to do so
6. Jesus mentions that no one can know God unless God himself reveals himself to the person
How does this story relate to the above question:
The above question assumes that for God to be good and just and or even real, he must give people certain trues in order to give them ample reason to believe. The truth of the matter however, is that men do not need any special revelation or miracle for them to submit to the Gospel's mandate. God has given both Creation and the Conscience as enough proof of his existence. From Creation alone, men know that there is a God (Romans 1:20, Psalm 19:1, etc), and from the Conscience, men know that they are guilty of sinning against God. This is why religion and man-centered piety as expressed through morality exist in abundance, incidentally. Men will do anything except the right thing, in order to appease their guilty conscience. Again, there is really no excuse for man's unbelief, thus God need not give any sign to prove axioms. Creation and conscience is all that is needed, as creation speaks of a Creator and the conscience leads sinners to seeking Him. Upon seeking, God will reveal himself through the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ. So, what is my answer to the above question? My answer is this: God allows events to take place that will reinforce beliefs in false gods as a judgment. Again, men should already believe (there is more than enough proof for us to adhere to the true God's commandments). However, because men love the darkness more than Christ Himself (John 3:19), he is guilty of His Creator's wrath. Therefore, God in his judgment does the worst thing he could do to a person in this life, namely leave them to their own boasted freewill.
"Why does God allow events to take place that will reinforce beliefs in false gods."
Now before I give a response to this question, I must seriously consider the motives of the one who asks this question. Does he really want know so that he might believe, or does his presupposition of the Christian God non-existence, cause him to ask this question as a reason to continue in unbelief? Of course, I cannot say with certainty that this person asks with right or wrong motives, as I am not God (he alone knows the hearts of men). It is for that reason, therefore, that I will attempt to give a Biblical answer without assuming anything more about this person. The following is my response:
Matthew 11:20-27
Then he began to denounce the cities where most of his mighty works had been done, because they did not repent. "Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be exalted to heaven? You will be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day.
But I tell you that it will be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you." At that time Jesus declared, "I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you have hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to little children; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will. All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
What do we learn from the Story:
1. Jesus did some miracles in some cities that did NOT repent
2. Jesus begins to denounce those cities
3. Jesus mentions that certain cites would have repented "if" they had miracles
4. Jesus mentions that somethings are "hidden" from some people and revealed to others
5. Jesus mentions it is the sovereign and gracious will of God to do so
6. Jesus mentions that no one can know God unless God himself reveals himself to the person
How does this story relate to the above question:
The above question assumes that for God to be good and just and or even real, he must give people certain trues in order to give them ample reason to believe. The truth of the matter however, is that men do not need any special revelation or miracle for them to submit to the Gospel's mandate. God has given both Creation and the Conscience as enough proof of his existence. From Creation alone, men know that there is a God (Romans 1:20, Psalm 19:1, etc), and from the Conscience, men know that they are guilty of sinning against God. This is why religion and man-centered piety as expressed through morality exist in abundance, incidentally. Men will do anything except the right thing, in order to appease their guilty conscience. Again, there is really no excuse for man's unbelief, thus God need not give any sign to prove axioms. Creation and conscience is all that is needed, as creation speaks of a Creator and the conscience leads sinners to seeking Him. Upon seeking, God will reveal himself through the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ. So, what is my answer to the above question? My answer is this: God allows events to take place that will reinforce beliefs in false gods as a judgment. Again, men should already believe (there is more than enough proof for us to adhere to the true God's commandments). However, because men love the darkness more than Christ Himself (John 3:19), he is guilty of His Creator's wrath. Therefore, God in his judgment does the worst thing he could do to a person in this life, namely leave them to their own boasted freewill.
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