Does God Create Evil?

One of the most common reasons why skeptics reject the reality of God, is due to the problem of evil in the world. The question that is often posed by the philosophers and atheists alike is, "how can an omnibenevolent and omnipotent God allow evil?" If he is infinitely perfect and infinitely strong, they reason, he cannot allow evil. You see, in the mind of one who would ask the aforementioned question, God's omnipotence cannot be reconciled with his omnibenevolence, as they are mutually exclusive. If he is truly good, he cannot allow evil to exist. And, since evil does exist, and if God is truly good, he cannot then be infinitely strong (since he being good, would stop sufferings). Such seemingly paradoxical statements award sufficing reason to altogether disregard a deity - especially the Christian representation of God. And yet, this is to be expected from the unbeliever. Scripturally speaking, all unbelievers are "defiled in their mind and consciences" (Titus 1:15), insomuch that "they are unable to believe spiritual truth because it is foolishness to them" (1 Cor 2:14). Therefore, for the rest of this post, I will seek to speak specifically to believers. The aim in this blog isn't to present a case for God to the unbeliever, but instead to give believers an explanation to the question, "does God create evil?"

"I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things" (Isa 45:7)

Before I can go on to give an explaination to this scripture, it will do well to lay some foundation. It must be seen at the outset, that the Bible is not a book written in 21th century American English, but rather two dead languages primarily; namely Hebrew and Greek. Therefore, my first point would be simply to point to exegesis. In this case, "what does evil mean in this particular scripture?" The word translated evil here, is the Hebrew word "ra raah." Its meanings are as followed: evil, distress, calamity, misery, grief. Note, therefore, that the word evil could rightly be translated as any one of the other meanings and keep its integrity and accuracy. In fact, the English Standard Version, for example, translates the word evil with "calamity," as do many other accepted translations. That being said, however, simple exegesis alone will not suffice in answering the question. If indeed God does make evil, as some might believe, there must be a central interpretative motif or theme that proves it in the scriptures.

While the scriptures clearly teach that God "creates evil" (Isa 45:7), "brings about calamity...and disaster" (Lam 3:37-38, Amos 3:6), and gives "bad times, as well as the good" (Ecc 7:13), should we then see God as an omnipotent megalomaniac? If we do, we are certain to run into some clear contradictions. Consider for example, three scriptures (there are many more, but for brevity's sake, I will refrain):

"The Rock, his work is perfect, for all his ways are justice. A God of faithfulness and without iniquity, just and upright is he" (Deu 32:4).

"This is the message we have heard from him and proclaim to you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all" (1 John 1:5).

"For you are not a God who delights in wickedness; evil may not dwell with you" (Psa 5:4).

Let's analyze some important facts:

1. God's work is perfect and altogether just (Deu 32:4)
2. God does not delight in wickedness (Psa 5:4)
3. God is light (perfect light/love/goodness), and there is NO darkness (evil) in him (1 Jn 1:5)

If you are a believer, you know that there are no contradictions in scripture, and therefore I will not spend time on that issue. Still, however, if you believe that God does create evil, you have come into a problem of contradictions. Does God create evil in the sense you assume, or is his ways altogether perfect and without evil? You cannot have it both ways, as indeed the two opinions are at odds and against a fundamental law of logic; namely the law of non contradiction. Now that we are presented with these contradictions, and as a result forced to remove ourselves from the presuppositions that keep us myopic, we will better deal with what scripture teaches (as apposed to having our opinions dictate what scripture actually say). What then does the bible mean when it says that "God 'creates' evil?" First, let it be said that evil is not a "created" thing. What I simply mean, is that you can't see, touch, feel, smell or hear evil. It is not one of the fundamental forces of physics, nor does it consist of matter, energy, or the spatial dimensions of the universe. Therefore, for my 1st argument against God creating evil, I would simply pose the "Absence Theodicy Argument."

In the same way "cold" is the absence of "heat," and "darkness" is the absence of "light,"I submit that evil is the absence of God. But how do we know that cold is the absence of heat, and darkness is the absence of light? First, concerning cold, we know that according to the laws of Physics, cold is in fact the absence of heat. Anything is able to be studied as long as it transmit energy (heat). Absolute Zero is the total absence of heat, but cold does not exist. What we have done is create a term to describe how we feel if we don't have body heat, or if we are not hot. And, as far as darkness is concerned, we know that light can be studied and darkness cannot. Darkness cannot be broken down. A simply ray of light, for example, tears the darkness and illuminates the surface where the light beam finishes. Dark is simply a term we use to describe what happens when there is a lack of light. Again - as its been said before - just as cold is the absence of heat and darkness is the absence of light, evil is the absence of good; albeit the greatness good, namely God himself.

Finally, I want to switch from a philosophical argument, to more of a theological one. The problem with God creating evil, as some believe, is a moral issue dealing with God's character, and therefore we must seek the scriptures to see what it says. Does Isaiah 45:7 teach that God creates evil in the same sense men might? First of all, the verse can have no reference to moral evil (wickedness) for such is opposed to the infinitely holy nature of God (Isaiah 6:3). Jehovah is a “God of faithfulness and without iniquity”(Deuteronomy 32:4). He is “not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness” (Psalm 5:4). Nor can it be supposed that this verse has to do with Jehovah’s original creation, for at the termination of the creation week, the Lord saw “everything that he had made, and, behold, it was very good” (Genesis 1:31). Then how might we understand the verse? The verse may well be understood in fact that:

1. whatever God does - whether we perceive it to be a calamity or altogether evil - is right and therefore good, since all the Lord does is good (Deu 32:4, Job 34:10).
2. God often uses the evil acts of free moral agents to bring about punishment or judgment, while yet remaining the one who is not the author of evil. Note for example, the case of Joseph's brothers who sold him into slavery, and years later where Joseph testifies..."it is not you who sent me here, but God."

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